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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 01:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why is the left keep misrepresenting what Trump said about his daughter? When asked if he would date her if he weren’t her father, it simply reflected pride in raising a smart, respectful, and loving daughter with good morals all men want that no?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What can be done to combat group stalking and harassment by an organized gang or society, particularly when they use universal sound weapons?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Did Leonardo da Vinci paint two Mona Lisas? Where are they?

There's no rule.